"As early as the Apostle [Paul], the scaling down process begins, and the natural man gets off a little easier in becoming a Christian." (Kierkegaard Journals 1855)


A Joomla! Template for the Rest of Us




Please enter your questions, and we will get back to you as soon as possible. As an anti-spam measure, we ask that you re-type the code you see in the box below, prior to clicking "Send Message"

Jeff Ward's Questions of Pastor Paul at Facebook

Questions to Ask Your Preacher about Paul of Tarsus [at Facebook at this link] [Ward's list of questions below is also at this link.]
by Jeff Ward

Relating to Revelation 2:1-2 

o If Paul wasn’t guilty as Rev 2:2 alleges, then why does he address those at Ephesus as an "apostle” in Ephesians 1:1?

o How can Paul be a 13th apostle when Revelation 21:14 says there are only twelve? 

o How can Paul be a 13th apostle when Jesus tells us in Matthew 19:28 there are only twelve?

o If Paul’s apostleship was not in question, then why does he defend it in 1st Corinthians 9:1-3? Why does he speak in v.3 of those who “try” him unless he was “tried” as Rev 2:2 alleges?

o If Paul was not one whom the Ephesians found to be a liar in Rev 2:2, then why does Paul say in 2nd Timothy 1:15 that “all they which are in Asia have turned away from me.”?

o If Paul was not called a liar about his apostleship, then why does he specifically say in 1st Timothy 2:7 he is not lying about his apostleship?

If Paul’s words are “holy scriptures”, then why does 2nd Timothy 3:15 say Timothy had been reading them since he was a child? Were Paul’s letters even written when Timothy was a child?

If “none are righteous” as Paul universally declares in Romans 3:9-20, then why are the parents of John the Baptist declared “righteous before God” in Luke 1:6?

Why does Paul say, “as it is written” in Romans 3:10 and then string together single sentences from no less than six places in the Bible, stringing them together as if they are one statement? Does he truly 
represent it “as it is written?” Are his conclusions the same as the original?

Why does Paul quote the “old testament” at all if it is not authoritative?

Part of Paul’s Romans 3:10 quote comes from Psalms 14. If there are “none righteous” including believers as Paul alleges, then why does Psalm 14:5 say, “for God is in the generation of the righteous”? Why would God speak of those who Paul says never existed?

If Paul acknowledges being Herodian in Romans 16:11 and Jesus tells me in Mark 8:15 to beware the leaven of Herod, then shouldn’t I obey Jesus and beware the leaven (doctrine) of Paul?

If Paul even late in his ministry claims to be a Pharisee in Acts 23:6 and Jesus tells me in Luke 12:1 to beware the leaven of the Pharisees, then shouldn’t I obey Jesus and beware Paul?

Paul claimed to have encountered Jesus in the desert on the road to Damascus. Jesus told me in Matthew 14:15 when someone claims to see him in the desert don’t believe him. Should I take the 
advice of Jesus?

Paul in Galatians 1 emphasizes his knowledge comes directly from Jesus and not from man. Jesus says in Matthew 24:23,26 if someone claims to see him in the secret chambers, I should not believe him. Who  was telling me the truth?

If Paul’s claim in Galatians 2:16 is true, that we are saved by faith only, then why does James refute this in James 2:14-26 calling the author of this doctrine “o vain man” in v.20?

If eating meat sacrificed to idols is okay as long as your “weaker brother” is not around as described in 1st Corinthians 8, then why is this practice later described as being hated by Jesus as the “doctrine of
Balaam” in Revelation 2:14? Why does Rev 2:20 condemn it when Paul says it’s okay if nobody knows about it?

Why did Paul tell the Corinthians idol meat was okay when the council at Jerusalem had specifically listed this as a forbidden practice in Acts 15:29?

Why did Paul ignore the four commands of the Jerusalem council in Acts 15 telling the Galatians in 2:10 they were only commanded to “remember the poor”? 

If Paul appeared in Jerusalem in Acts 9:26 after his conversion, then why does he tell the Galatians in 1:18 that he waited three years to go? Why does he assure us in v.20 he is not lying?

If the “other gospel” Paul speaks of in Galatians 1:6 was not the very one taught by Peter, James and John, then why does Paul attack the character of these three men in Galatians 2? 

Why did Paul accuse Peter “before them all” when Jesus said in Matthew 18:15-17 to first confront a brother privately, then with two witnesses before going public?

Why did Paul criticize Peter for being Jewish around the Jews and Gentile around the Gentiles in Galatians 2:14 when this is precisely what Paul says he himself practices in 1st Corinthians 9:20-22?

If the gospel of the circumcision was committed to Paul and the gospel of the Jews to Peter as Paul claims in Galatians 2:7, then why does Peter claim just the opposite in Acts 15:7?

Why does Paul, now 17 years into his ministry fear in Galatians 2:3 that he “had run in vain”? 

If obeying the law is bondage as Paul claims in Galatians 4:9, then why did Jesus tell the man in Mark 10:17 that he must “obey the commandments” to “have eternal life”. Was Jesus trying to bring that 
man into bondage?

If the covenant at Sinai was given to the descendants of Rebecca and Isaac, then why does Paul try to relate it instead to Hagar in Galatians 4:25?

Why did Paul circumcise Timothy in Acts 16:1-3 and then tell him 1) It causes Christ to profit him nothing, 2) He is now a debtor to the whole law and 3) He is fallen from grace in Galatians 5:2-4? Why
would Paul do such a terrible thing to Timothy? Did Paul hate Timothy?

If God brought the children of Israel to Sinai to put them in bondage to the law as Paul claims in Galatians, then why did he tell them at that time he was bringing them “out of bondage” in Exodus 2:2? Was this some cruel trick God was playing on them?

If the law puts us in bondage, why does God say he “redeemed you out of the house of bondage” in Deuteronomy 13:5?

If Jesus abolished the law as Paul claims in Ephesians 2:15, then why does Jesus say in Matthew 5:17 that he did not come to destroy the law? Why does Jesus say it will not pass until AFTER heaven and 
earth have (v.17) passed away? Has that already happened? What does verse 18 say Paul’s place in the kingdom of heaven be as a result?

Paul claims in Ephesians 3:3 to have knowledge of mysteries of God revealed only through him. Paul bears witness of himself even though Jesus says he himself could not in John 5:31. Is Paul superior to

Paul speaks in Ephesians 6:19 of making known a “mystery of the gospel.” Why wasn’t this mystery shared with the 12 apostles Jesus spent 3 ½ years training?

If Paul could be given all knowledge with a single blinding flash, then why did Jesus spend his entire ministry training apostles? Why didn’t he just zap them?

Paul says in Philippians 2:7 that Jesus came in the “likeness of men”. Paul claims in Romans 8:3 that Jesus came in the “likeness of sinful flesh.” 1st John says anyone who says that Christ came in 
something other than flesh is of the spirit of antichrist. This is known in theology as the doctrine of docetism. Why is Paul excused for teaching this doctrine?

If the law is a curse as Paul alleges, then why should we “establish the law” in Romans 3:31?

If the “mysteries of God” were revealed through a single man Paul as he claims in Colossians 1:23-26 and elsewhere, then what grounds do we have for rejecting Joseph Smith, Mohammed, the Pope and 
many others who claim exactly the same thing?

If the law was “against us” as Paul claims in Colossians 2:14, then why do Deuteronomy 17:19, Proverbs 6:23 and Proverbs 13:14 say it’s the way to life?

Why does Paul say we can do what we want with the Sabbath days in Colossians 2:16 when the Ten Commandments say, “Remember the Sabbath and keep it holy.”? 

Who has authorized Paul to give new commandments as he does in 1st Thessalonians 4:2?

Who is the authority Paul is demanding people to obey in 2nd Thessalonians 3:14?

Paul commands in 3:6-7 that we obey the traditions he commands. Did Jesus ever tell us we should obey Paul?

Exactly what did Paul do to Hymeneus and Alexander in 1st Timothy 1:20 to deliver them to satan? Did he kill them? Is it normal for a minister of God to deliver people to Satan?

Is Paul’s practice of rebuking before all in 1st Timothy 5:20 consistent with Jesus admonitions in Matthew 18:15-17?

Why was Paul seeking a prophet in 1st Corinthians 14:37 to endorse his commands? Is there a prophet on record ever having done so?

If the men that were on the Damascus road heard the voice that spoke to Paul in Acts 9:7, then why does Paul change his story in Acts 22:9 saying they didn’t hear it? Is it possible these men refuted his 
earlier story?

Why does Paul claim in Acts 9:10-16 that his mission to the Gentiles was delivered through Ananias but then refute it later saying it was told to him directly by Jesus without going to Damascus later in Acts 
26:16-18? Could it be that Ananias refused to support his earlier story and he had to change it?

Why does Paul say he is ready to die at Jerusalem in Acts 21:13 and then instead “appeal to Caesar” in Acts 25:11?

According to Acts 21:20-21, Paul stood accused by believers in Jesus. That means they believed in his resurrection. Paul was accused by them of teaching believers to forsake the Law of Moses. Why did 
Paul lie in Acts 23:6 he was being accused instead of believing in the resurrection? Did Jesus ever lie to save his hide?

Why does Paul criticize those who “go to law” before unbelievers instead of with one another in 1st Corinthians 6:1-8, but then “appeal to Caesar” when he is accused by fellow believers (Acts 21:20) in 

Why did Jesus tell the original Apostles to “go unto all nations” in Matthew 28:19 and then take this away from them in Galatians 2 leaving twelve guys to minister to the Jews and only one guy in charge
of the Gentiles?

Why did Jesus keep his Apostles in the dark about Paul in Matthew 28? Why didn’t he tell them a new guy would be showing up making some changes in the plan?

If Gamaliel encouraged everyone to leave the believers in Jesus alone in Acts 5:34, and if Paul was his student as Paul claims in Acts 22:3, then why was Paul trying to do exactly the opposite as his teacher 
was teaching?

Why would Paul grumble about apostles “chosen of men” in Galatians 1:1 if he did not covet the apostleship given to Mathias in Acts 1:23-26?

If the writings of Paul are confusing as 2nd Peter 3:15-16 affirms, then why did the Holy Spirit write confusing things through Paul and not through others?

Why does Paul quote the Greek philosopher Philo in Titus 1:12? Does the Holy Spirit quote philosophers as resources?

Did the Cretan prophet in Titus 1:12 tell the truth or a lie? Please explain.

After calling himself an apostle 16 times in Rom 1:1, 11:13, 1st Cor 1:1, 9:1, 9:2, 15:9, 2nd Cor 1:1, 12:12, Gal 1:1, Eph 1:1, Col 1:1, 1Tim 1:1, 1Tim 2:7, 2Tim 1:1, 1:11 and Titus 1:1, why does Paul drop all claims of apostleship when on the hotseat in Jerusalem claiming in Acts 26:16 only to be a “minister and a witness”?

The only one of Paul’s churches that is considered a “candlestick” in Revelation 1:11 is the one that is complimented for rejecting him. Coincidence? Where are the Corinthians? The church at Rome? 
Galatians? Colossians? Considering Revelation 2:5, could it be they lost their candlestick?

Why does Paul say in Galatians 4:8-9 that the law was ordained by angels when Exodus 20 clearly says it is given by God? 

If Jesus says in Matthew 22:38 the law and the prophets hang on two great commandments, why does Paul OMIT the most important one saying in Galatians 5:14 the law is fulfilled in the second one only? 
(Note, James 2:8 calls “love thy neighbor” the “royal law” without saying it’s the ONLY one.)

Deuteronomy 13:1-3 says God will test us with false prophets to see if we love him with all our heart. Could this be true?