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Did Israel Reject the True Christ As Paul Says?

Layla writes me on 8/30/2013

When Israel rejected their Messiah and his offer of the Kingdom, God raised up the Apostle Paul and gave salvation to the Gentiles.

To reject Pauline Christianity is to reject salvation in this day and age and the Grace Gospel of 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.


My Reply 8/30/2013


Acts depicts many "myriads" (tens of thousands) of Jews came to the Lord by Acts 21. James tells Paul this. In Acts 6:7, it likewise says "many priests [at the Temple] were obedient to the faith." The entire original church was made up of Jews -- citizens of Israel. Why do you say that Israel en masse rejected its Messiah as truly portrayed by the 12 and James in light of this strong evidence to the contrary? 
Are you perhaps relying upon Paul's words that say this happened rather than looking at the proof which Luke records in Acts of the very opposite? It was not 100% acceptance obviously, but at the same time, a substantial acceptance by Jews, including priests at the temple, had indeed happened. 
Only Paul's "apostate" version was rejected, as Deut 13:1-5 commands Israel to reject. That passage says any prophet who teaches you "not to follow the way instructed here" (the Law given Moses) -- known as APOSTASIA in Greek -- is a false prophet. Paul's version of Christianity required rejection by Israel of that apostate version of Christ.
In Acts 21:21, you will see James says to Paul "I have heard you are in 'apostosia'" in Greek, and then asks Paul whether it is true he teaches Jews to no longer follow the Law. In response, Paul denies in effect he does so by agreeing to do the ritual from Numbers 6 which James proposes Paul perform to prove Paul does not teach "apostasia." But we all now know from Romans 7:1-17 that Paul taught Jews too no longer must follow the Law.
Thus Paul's version of a Christ with an apostate message was a self-fulfilling prophecy of what Paul claimed the Jews rejected... Christ was rejected by those Jews to whom Paul preached because Paul taught in violation of Deut 13:1-5 for Jews to abandon the Law. (Paul does this clearly in Romans 7:1-7, as already noted.) In Acts 21 James is investigating this issue, but Paul misleads James to think Paul is teaching law-adherence, which we independently know from Paul's letters such as Romans 7:1-7 that this is not true.
But the message from the true Jesus, which included full adherence to the Law given Moses (Matt 5:17-19 and Luke 16) was accepted by "myriads" (10s of thousands) of Jews, Luke records by Acts 21. Hence, the premise of your accusation of shamefulness above is not true.
Blessings and Shalom
Acts 21:21 is typically mistranslated so our ears do not hear what James truly said. Look at the Greek tab for Acts 21:21 at Biblios. You don't have to be a Greek scholar to see what James says is: "they are informed that you taught apostasy from Moses to all Jews among the Gentiles, telling them not to circumcise their children, nor to walk in the way of the customs."  
Young's Literal is the only one to properly use 'apostasy' in translation:
and they are instructed concerning thee, that apostasy
from Moses thou dost teach to all Jews among the
nations, saying -- Not to circumcise the children, nor
after the customs to walk; (Acts 21:21).
The KJV is typical of all modern mistranslations of this verse:
21 And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
There is no verb "fosake" there. What is truly present is simply a noun in the accusative case, singular - apostasia. In English, it has the same meaning in Greek: apostasy.
Why do none of the translations use the proper English word, but replace it with a verb, which loses the weight of the charge: apostasy? Clearly, these are translations to draw us not to realize the early Bishop James, under the authority of the 12, brought a charge of apostasy to Paul's attention.
In one of our articles we discuss the meaning of Apostasy in Judaism from the Jewish Encyclopedia which defines it as the rejection of the Law given Moses by God-- see our article Ebionites
Further Study Note:
In John Regesh's recent St. Paul, The First Anti-Christ at 89, he references Paul's remarks in Romans 10:14-21 where Paul paints Israel as having rejected Christ, much like Layla assumes is true. Regesh responds why this is not true at that page.

Layla's 1st Reply: Paul Magnified His Office of A Separate Dispensation (8/30/2013)

Since 2 Timothy 2:15 (KJB) tells us to rightly divide the word of truth, and Ephesians 1:13 tells what the word of truth is: the gospel of our salvation, why would we need to rightly divide it?

Because there's more than one gospel in the Bible.

The Apostle Paul's "my gospel" differs to Israel's kingdom gospel that was preached by the twelve of times past. We are currently living between the Daniel's 69th and 70th week which wasn't prophesied as the risen Christ gave the Apostle Paul the Revelation of the Mystery which was hid in God before the foundation of the world. Times have moved on since Jesus came only to the lost sheep of the House of Israel (read it in Matthew). We are currently living in the "but now" period, and when the Day of Christ happens, otherwise known as the rapture, the Day of the Lord will take effect with doctrine from Hebrews to Revelation to the 7 churches of Israel (depicted throughout the Old Testament).

If you do not rightly divide the word of truth - you're in trouble as Paul's "my" gospel given to him by the risen Christ differs from Israel's kingdom gospel. Paul's gospel to the Gentile is without works thrown into the occasion, where Israel's levitical and mosaic law has temporarily been put in abeyance along with Israel's prophetic programme. Today, just as Abraham was saved as a Gentile, we are saved by faith alone, whereas Israel's kingdom gospel is one of faith plus works.

Paul distinctly says he magnifies his office and we are to be followers of him as he is of Christ. We are Gentiles, not Jews and we do not follow a works based salvation programme and we aren't under Israel's levitical or mosaic law.


My Reply - What Authority Does Paul's Teachings Have? (8/30/2013)
Did Paul ever quote Jesus ever saying anything to Paul about what you just said? As you know, a prophet -- a true prophet -- has to quote the "Lord" as telling him something is true to be believed? So where in any of Paul's writings does Paul attribute these ideas to words Paul received from Jesus? If you acknowledge there is nothing from Jesus teaching on any topic ever quoted by Paul in his epistles other than the liturgy, do you see a problem in following Paul without even one word of Jesus confirming what Paul says is true?

Layla's Reply That Paul Has the Superior Lessons from Jesus But Not A Prophet
I agree with you, Paul isn't a prophet, but then again, there aren't any prophets in this current dispensation of God's grace, when Israel is lo-ammi and her prophetic programme has been put on hold until a future date, when God will again deal with them and bring them during the Day of the Lord (tribulation).  Paul was a Pharisee, born in Tarsus, Turkey, he was persecuting the little Flock - the Church at Jerusalem, he was a Christ denier, but he knew the Tanach (Old Testament scriptures), until the risen Christ appeared to him personally.    Prophets were given to Israel in times past to warn Israel of the grave consequences of her apostasy. No prophets were elected to the Gentile nations.   Prophets were sent to the Gentiles nations yes to preach salvation to them, that they had to prostelyze to the Jewish faith in order to be saved, and this is where Israel fell short.  Jonah being a good example of one who was sent to preach salvation to the Gentiles.  Caps are for emphasis :
1 And Saul, yet breathing out threatenings and slaughter against the disciples of the Lord, went unto the high priest,

2 And desired of him letters to Damascus to the synagogues, that if he found any of this way, whether they were men or women, he might bring them bound unto Jerusalem.

3 And as he journeyed, he came near Damascus: and suddenly there shined round about him a light from heaven:

4 And he fell to the earth, and heard a voice saying unto him, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me?

5 And he said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I AM JESUS WHOM THOU PERSECUTEST: it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks.

13 Then Ananias answered, Lord, I have heard by many of this man, how much evil he hath done to thy saints at Jerusalem:

14 And here he hath authority from the chief priests to bind all that call on thy name.



But when it pleased God, who separated me from my mother’s womb, and called me by his grace, (16) To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood:
What confuses people the most and it's the basic reason why they can't wrap their heads around Paul being the 13th Apostle as :
There are 12 Apostles - one elected for each of the 12 tribes of ISRAEL - so what does one do with Paul?
Revelation 21:12 -  And had a wall great and high, and had TWELVE gates, and at the gates TWELVE angels, and names written thereon, which are the names of the TWELVE tribes of the children of Israel:
Revelation 21:14 -  And the wall of the city had TWELVE foundations, and in them the names of the TWELVE apostles of the Lamb. 
And along comes the Apostle Paul, the 13th Apostle and there's no place for him, so what do people do because :
a)  He preaches totally different doctrine to the twelve.
b)  There's no place for him in the New Jerusalem.
c)  He preaches spirit baptism as opposed to water baptism.
d)  He preaches that it is our faith alone in the finished work of Christ on Calvary's cross without any works that saves us, in direct opposition to James 2 (compare James 2 to Romans 4).
e)  He tells us the Law has been done away with, and all the ordinances that go with it, and that we have complete freedom in Christ.
f)  He preaches once saved, always saved, whereas Jewish doctrine preaches one has to endure to the end in order to be saved.
g)  He preaches that we can eat anything - that all animals are clean as opposed to the twelve who were law keeping, pork abstaining Jews.
So they inevitably call him a false apostle and throw him out of the equation concerning sound doctrine because they aren't aware of how God works and deals with people.  God's principles and character remain the same, they are unchangeable, but the way He deals with people clearly changes and this can be seen throughout the Bible. Examples :  Adam and Eve were only allowed to eat herbs and plants in the Garden of Eden, the Jews were only allowed to eat Kosher under the Levitical Law, Paul tells us all animals are clean and we can eat anything concerning foods.
Religion and tradition divide the Bible into two parts, the Old Testament and the New Testament, however, in Ephesians 2:7-13 it is noted :
that in the AGES TO COME he might show the exceeding riches of his grace, in his kindness toward us, through Christ Jesus.
8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9 not of works, lest any man should boast.
10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in the
11 ¶ Wherefore remember, that ye being IN TIME PAST Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; 12 that at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: 13 BUT NOW, in Christ Jesus, ye who sometime were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Here we can clearly note that there are three parts mentioned :  past, present and future.
We are currently living in the BUT NOW period - the present.
Matthew, Mark, Luke and John fall into the Old Testament - see Matthew 10:5,6 and Matthew15:24 - Jesus was only sent to the lost sheep of the House of Israel, and He told His disciples not to go into the way of the Gentiles.  Why?  Because the reason He came to earth (God incarnate) was to offer Israel her long promised kingdom with Him as King (this is prophesied throughout the Old Testament).  Gentiles had to either bless Israel or proselyze to the Jewish faith in those days in order to be saved, which is no longer the case today (it's called progressive revelation).
Since the Jews rejected their King, and there was no other way for people to be saved - think about it, with Israel lo-ammi (not God's people) and therefore no longer a light to the Gentile nations, her temple destroyed in AD 70, her people scattered, apostate to the core, the majority being either Atheists, Agnostics and current day Judaism clearly denying Christ.  How would people be saved?  And since God is kind, longsuffering, compassionate, He had a plan B which is stated as follows :
Ephesians 3:3-11 KJV (3) How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words, (4) Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ) (5) WHICH IN OTHER AGES WAS NOT MADE KNOWN UNTO THE SONS OF MEN, as it is NOW revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit; (6) That the Gentiles should be fellow heirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel: (7) WHEREOF I WAS MADE A MINISTER, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power. (8) Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the UNSEARCHABLE RICHES OF CHRIST; (9) And to make all men see what is the FELLOWSHIP OF THE MYSTERY, which from the beginning of the world hath been HID IN GOD, who created all things by Jesus Christ: (10) To the intent that now unto the principalities and powers in heavenly places might be known by the church the manifold wisdom of God, (11) According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord:
Nowhere in the Prophetic Programme does it state that salvation would be given to the Gentiles in times to come, that Gentiles would/could be saved without having to go through Israel in order to be saved, as individuals.  Today individuals are saved, not nations as in the Prophetic Programme.   It was a mystery which was hid in God before the foundation of the world.  Everything in the Mystery Dispensation is a mystery to most people out there, even after 2000 years when it was given to Paul by the risen Christ.  
Colossians 1:27 - To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:
The Gospel that saves today :
1 Corinthians 15:1-4 :  
15 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.

3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

Good websites for discerning the truth :

My Reply - This is Contradictory of Jesus and Internally Inconsistent (9/1/2013)

You say Paul is not a prophet -- a spokesperson for God or Jesus, but then you rely upon Paul to tell you we are in a different dispensation, and that nothing Jesus said during His ministry applies. Do you not see the contradiction?
Furthermore, you never disputed what I said earlier -- that Paul never quotes Jesus on anything not already in the gospel. Paul solely attributes words to Jesus learned from the communion liturgy. So if Paul is not a prophet, then you evidently are accepting him as a teacher. Because he is not divinely inspired, i.e., not a prophet, then why are you trusting him?
Furthermore, the entire dispensation theory crumbles when you examine the last words of Jesus to the 12 -- "go and teach the nations (goyim in Hebrew -- Gentiles) all that I have commanded you." Jesus evidently thought what He taught earlier applied. There was no different dispensation for the Gentiles than what Jesus delivered to the Jews.
In light of this, it is self-evident you are relying upon a non-prophet to teach you things contrary to what Jesus taught, but at the same time you claim Paul was taught these teachings by Jesus even though there is not a shred of evidence to prove Paul attributes his teachings to Jesus. This is true from Acts and all Paul's epistles.  You surely have not correctly divided the word of truth - separating the chaffe (Paul's 'teaching's without inspiration that contradict the true Jesus) from the wheat - the words of the true Jesus.
Looking forward to how you reconcile all this. 
Layla's Response 9/1/2013
You don't understand what I'm saying - since Israel is lo-ammi (not God's people today) and in complete apostasy since they rejected their Messiah, and since the prophets were elected by God to ISRAEL - yes, there are no prophets today.  Israel's prophetic programme has been put on hold until a future time.  God did NOT call any prophets to the Gentile heathen nations - prove this with scripture please.   Ezekiel, Isaiah, Micah, etc, etc are ALL written to the nation Israel.
So are you denying Acts 9 then?  And the fact that Paul states that a mystery was revealed to him by the risen Christ?   And that he suffered for Christ's sake?  Do you still believe in Israel's signs and wonders and that God still heals people like He did under Israel's prophetic programme?  If so, then can you please explain to me why the hospitals and mental asylums are jam packed with sick people?  Do you personally know of any friends or relatives that have been raised from the dead?  Can you please tell me that if the Kingdom is currently in effect, why the world is so messed up?
Since you believe that "teaching all nations"  and preaching the gospel to them are our marching orders for today? :  Why aren't we seeing whole nations saved, and since God was talking to Israel and instructing them on that - why was their temple destroyed and their country run over by the Romans?  How, in that state could they go and "teach all nations?"
Exactly what I said, God isn't dealing with nations today, He is dealing with individuals - anyone who wants to be saved, can be saved today apart from Israel, they do NOT have to go through Israel today like they did in times past in order to be saved.
Doug, I fear for you, in denying the Apostle Paul's words and the Gospel given to him by the risen Christ, you like Sherry Shriner and a host of others are flagrantly rejecting salvation by believing another Gospel, i.e., the Kingdom Gospel given to the Jews and preached by the 12 in times past, and when this dispensation comes to a close with the Day of Christ (rapture), God will again start dealing with Israel and her Kingdom Gospel will once again be in effect.  He is going to refine them in the fire like gold (tribulation).   There is still unfulfilled prophecy contained in the Old Testament prophecies (prophets) pertaining solely to Israel that needs to be fulfilled.    Israel lost her elevated status as light to the world - yet you still follow Jewish doctrine, how so?
You see the "contradictions" and the differences, but you say it's because Paul is a false apostle, instead of seeing the progressive revelation, which can also be seen in what is known as the "Old Testament" :   God didn't deal with Noah the same way He dealt with Adam and Eve, and the same applies to Abraham - all had a different set of instructions :  Noah was told to build an ark (he did and obeyed God's instructions),  Adam and Eve were instructed not to eat of the forbidden fruit and they did (they disobeyed God's instructions),  Abraham as a Gentile was told to pack up and leave Ur with his family - he did and obeyed God's instructions.  The Jews were told to repent and be baptised because the Kingdom was at hand (paraphrase) :  some of them did, but the majority didn't and instead crucified their King, and in doing so, a new set of instructions came about :  Believe in Christ's death for sins, his burial and resurrection and you are saved (1 Corinthians 15:1-4) without works (Ephesians 2:8-9), Romans 4:5, Romans 4:25
Now people do not have to or need to go through Israel in order to be saved, but yet you quote what Jesus said to Israel as being our marching orders?  Do you still see the current day Israel as being the current light of the world, where most of them are Christ deniers, still believe in Judaism as the path to salvation, most others being atheists, etc. 
So why aren't nations being saved then - and the keyword is : NATIONS, not individuals - I don't see any nations out there having christianity written into their constitutions?  All I see is a bunch of nations that don't want anything to do with christianity,  but I do see a lot of nations who subscribe to Islam - Saudi Arabia, Libya, Egypt, Syria, Lebanon, Ethiopia, Sudan, Indonesia........ if those are our marching orders for today as you say, I think we're doing a pretty rotten job, since most of Europe's churches are empty, derelict or being converted to mosques.
Aah, but you'll say America is a Christian nation - then why is the 10 commandments and prayer banned from schools and other institutions?  Why don't they keep the Sabbath?
Instead, today, God is pouring out his unmerited favour upon individuals - whoever wants to be saved can be saved - and it's those that believe that Christ took ALL one's sins upon Himself - because when He died, our sins were all future, were they not?  So if He took ALL sins - why is most of mainline and denominational christianity still repenting of sins which He took upon Himself?  Answer :  unbelief.  If you do not believe that He took ALL your sins upon Himself and declared you righteous before God in doing so and you still feel the need to undergo a lifestyle change in order to save your skin - you probably aren't saved, because you are in unbelief.
Once we believe the gospel of 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 our spirits are saved, but we still live with our rotten flesh :  the very reason why we receive new bodies on the Day of Christ - because no rotten flesh can stand before God.
It always bothered me that Paul and James basically contradicted one another, and if God is in control as you say, why do you believe that Paul's epistles aren't part of the completed canon?  Do you think God who allow people to be deceived like that for hundreds of years already?  If you rip Paul's 13 epistles out of the Bible, you are ripping out where we currently are today, as well as the Grace gospel.  There's no denying that if Paul's epistles are ripped out the Bible, the doctrine flows smoothly, but since God isn't dealing with Israel or Jewish proselytes today and Israel is just a shadow of her former self (check out her current borders and how many of her leaders are atheists) - we would be denying that we are living between the 69th week and Daniel's 70th week.
Currently we are between Romans and Philemon  - that is our doctrine, where upon beleivng the Gospel of Grace, our sins are no longer being imputed to us (2 Corinthias 5)
Matthew, Mark, Luke and John are part of the Old Testament when the Jewish levitical and mosaic law was still in effect, it was the Messiah's offer of the Kingdom to Israel - not the Gentile nations, it was an offer for her to come back into the fold so she could turn away from her apostasy and once again become the light of the world.    Why do you think Jesus ignored the Canannite woman?  She was a Gentile, only when she elevated Israel and in so doing noted that salvation was through them did he help her.  Go and read it in your Bible.  Why do you think Jesus called the Gentiles dogs?  They were on a lower level than the Jews, they were considered unclean.   But mainline christianity doesn't see these things and puts the Gentiles (in times past) on par with the Jews?  How do you explain that?  They read today's circumstance back into the 4 synoptic Gospels to Israel.
The book of Acts is transitional - it's a bridge from one dispensation to another - if you read it carefully you will not how things are constantly changing in it - Israel is diminishing, then we come to Romans to Philemon - God's set of instructions for the current age.   Hebrews to Revelation :  Is doctrine for the tribulation.
It's the only way the Bible makes sense and one can clearly see God's plan and purpose for mankind.  If you do not believe in dispensationalism then you are contradicting or denying the changing dietary rules/laws throughout the Bible, the fact that God instituted human government, and eventually the Law - all are progrressive revelation and changes - God does not remain on one spot.

My First Reply to Paragraph 1 of Her Email
Thank you so much for your thought provoking letters.
This reply is just to paragraph 1 of your letter. 

In my very first response, I explained why I believe Paul's claim that Israel rejected its Messiah is false. I will go into more depth here because you apparently are not accepting what I previously wrote. 
In the initial apostolic era, there was a very strong favorable response to Jesus from Jews. In Acts 21:20, James says "many myriads" of Jews had come to Jesus by that point. The term "myriads" is typically mistranslated as "thousands." (Young's Literal is the only one that is fair, rendering it as "myriads.") However, the meaning of  "myriads" in Greek of that era is clear - James said "many tens of thousands" of Jews (or, figuratively, it came to be "an infinite number") had come to Jesus. As Wikipedia explains:
Myriad (Ancient Greekmyrias, plural myriades), "numberless, countless, infinite", is a classicalGreek word for the number 10,000. In modern English, the word refers to an unspecified large quantity. ("Myriad," Wikipedia.)
Hence, Israel had not rejected Jesus by the time of Paul's preaching.
Instead, at that juncture, the only gospel the Jews rejected was the "apostate" one of Paul which the Law commands the Jews to reject (see Deut 13:1-5; Isaiah 8:20). They did not reject the messiah, but the Lawless teachings of Paul spoken allegedly on behalf of Jesus the Messiah. This key distinction is why James in Acts 21 asks Paul about the charge of some that Paul is guilty of "apostasia" from Moses. See "apostasia" under the Greek tab at this link for Acts 21:21.
Apostasy is a very clear concept in Judaism -- and means the Jews upset with Paul in Acts 21 were not rejecting Messiah at all, but instead were rejecting the "apostasy" of Paul from the Law given Moses by God. The Jewish  Encyclopedia explains apostasy

is applied in a religious sense to signify rebellion and rebels against God and the Law, desertion and deserters of the faith of Israel... Accordingly it is stated in I Mace. 2:15 that “the officers of the king compelled the people to apostatize,” that is, to revolt against the God of Israel; and Jason, the faithless high priest, is “pursued by all and hated as a deserter of the law.” (II Mace. 5:8)... [Gratz in History of the Jews explains apostasy as:] “those of the Jewish race who voluntarily apostatized from the holy God and from the law of God, transgressing the divine commandments for the belly’s sake.” (“Apostasy and Apostates from Judaism,” Jewish Encyclopedia (editors  Isidore Singer, Cyrus Adler) (Funk and Wagnalls, 1912)  at 13.)

Obviously someone clearly apostate from Judaism like Paul would claim that the Jews were rejecting Messiah rather than Paul accepting the fact their complaint was a legitimate one of apostasy. These opponents were focused upon Paul's doctrines, not about whether Jesus was Messiah. Paul falsely ascribes their rejection of him to the rejection of Messiah. Instead, it was the rejection of Paul and his doctrine, and not of the Messiah. Luke preserves in Acts 21 that in fact Jews were embracing Jesus overwhelmingly until Paul showed up -- that in fact  "many myriads" -- a term meaning at least many tens of thousands (or, as Wikipedia explained, came to mean an infinite number) of Jews had accepted Christ. 
Hence, the premise of your argument crumbles because it relies upon Paul to say the Jews / Israel by and large rejected Jesus when they did no such thing. By that juncture, many myriads accepted Jesus. 
Furthermore, Israel's program is not on hold, as you say. God has not said the Jews are not my people as of the point in time the New Testament was inaugurated by Jesus. Again, you are listening to Paul and misapplying Hosea 1:8 'lo-ammi' reference (see post-script). Paul speaks contrary to inspired texts. The prophecies of the NT explained what the coming New Testament would represent: a reuniting with the kingdom of Israel as a wife divorced into one people combined with the kingdom of Judah. (The kingdom of Judah was never spiritually divorced, and was beloved. See Hosea 1:6.) The NT in prophecy never represented an abandonment of both the kingdoms of Israel and Judah in favor of the Gentiles who supposedly are now put in their place or first. The Prophecy of the NT was clearly to the contrary.  
Inspired scripture taught God is rebonding with ISRAEL and JUDAH, and this includes revitalizing the Law (given Moses) in a New Covenant:

“Behold, the days are coming, declares the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah, not like the covenant that I made with their fathers on the day when I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, my covenant that they broke, though I was their husband, declares the Lord. For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, declares the Lord: I will put my law within them, and I will write it on their hearts. And I will be their God, and they shall be my people. And no longer shall each one teach his neighbor and each his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest, declares the Lord. For I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.” (Jeremiah 31:31–34, ESV. See also Exodus 20:6; Deuteronomy 5:10; Ezekiel 11:19-21)

Ezekiel, who lived around the same time as Jeremiah, adds that God will give a new spirit in this same process, and the Holy Spirit will cause true followers to walk in God’s statutes and obey His rules.

And I will give you a new heart, and a new spirit I will put within you. And I will remove the heart of stone from your flesh and give you a heart of flesh. And I will put my Spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes and be careful to obey my rules. (Ezekiel 36:26–27, ESV)

Why is it called a "new covenant"? Because God reveals the Kingdom of Israel (the northern kingdom -- see post-script for explanation) previously committed adultery (Jeremiah 3:6-11) and God says He will take this kingdom of Israel "back like a wife abandoned."(Isaiah 54:6.)  
Judah -- whose people were called "Jews" -- to distinguish them from northern "Israel" -- was not in need of being taken back in the NT -- only Israel.  But the New Covenant would reunite Israel and Judah as one wife to God. See Hosea 1:6, discussed in the post-script.
Thus, Paul's idea that the New Covenant is only with Gentiles because Israel rejected Messiah is factually and prophetically incorrect.
Thoughts? Reply?
I will get to your other points in due time.
Blessings and Shalom
PS Incidentally, you borrow the lo-ammi reference from Hosea 1:8 to suggest this means God was throwing off all Jews at that time or prophetically. But this is wrong. This passage is talking of the northern Kingdom of Israel during the divided kingdom period; the "kingdom of Israel" is identified in 1:4, 1:6, and when it says "I will not show love to Israel,' also says in 1:6 "I will show love to Judah" -- the southern kingdom. Hence, Jews of Judah were specifically beloved. The Israelites of the northern kingdom of Israel were divorced. The New Covenant promised to heal that divorce from the Northern Kingdom, and have a new marriage covenant between "Israel" as one nation again, and God. I have written about this in my brief article Israel - A Wife Divorced.

Layla's Letter September 3, 2013
I will give Layla the last word, and you, the reader, can assess whether she read anything above I said:
If Paul's gospel and his "lawlessness" (which I would like you to explain to me) reject Christ as you have said, I'd like to know how you discern Acts 9.
Israel as a NATION rejected her Messiah - that is why they crucified Him, and the reason why they were declared lo-ammi, the reason why the second temple was destroyed and their land given over to the heathen to plunder.  Current Israel is not the Israel of God - it is apostate, but I'd like to state at the same time that yes there are individuals living there who are saved because they firmly believe that Christ died for their sins, was buried and raised again on the 3rd day.  God is currently pouring out His unmerited favour (grace) on mankind today, and whoever believes the Grace Gospel is saved regardless of race, nationality or fleshly status.
Thousands of Jews did come to Jesus yes, I'm not denying that - but the majority rejected Him,if they had not, they would have accepted the offer of the Kingdom,  but they did not believe He was the Son of God.  This can clearly be discerned from scripture :
Luke 17:25 But first, he must suffer many things and be rejected by this generation
Isaiah 53:3 He is despised and rejected by men, A Man of sorrows and acquainted with grief. And we hid, as it were, our faces from Him; He was despised, and we did not esteem Him.
Luke 13:34 O JERUSALEM, JERUSALEM, the one who kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to her! How often I wanted to gather your children together, as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, but you were not willing!
Matthew 21:42 Jesus said to them, "Did you never read in the Scriptures,'The stone which the builders rejected, the same was made the head of the corner. This was from the Lord. It is marvelous in our eyes?'
Mark 8:31 He began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things, and be rejected by the elders, the chief priests, and the scribes, and be killed, and after three days rise again.
Acts 7:39 to whom our fathers wouldn't be obedient, but rejected him, and turned back in their hearts to Egypt
Hebrews 12:17 For you know that even when he afterward desired to inherit the blessing, he was rejected, for he found no place for a change of mind though he sought it diligently with tears.
And they had rejected Him (Christ) by the time Paul was chosen to be the chief steward of the Dispensation of the Grace of God :
Acts 28:26 Saying, Go unto this people, and say, Hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and not perceive:

27 For the heart of this people is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes have they closed; lest they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them.

28 Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it.

29 And when he had said these words, the Jews departed, and had great reasoning among themselves.

30 And Paul dwelt two whole years in his own hired house, and received all that came in unto him,

31 Preaching the kingdom of God, and teaching those things which concern the Lord Jesus Christ, with all confidence, no man forbidding him.

You said this :
"Ezekiel, who lived around the same time as Jeremiah, adds that God will give a new spirit in this same process, and the Holy Spirit will cause true followers to walk in God’s statutes and obey His rules."
You're right, but this is future.  This is one of the prophecies that haven't been fulfilled as yet.  The New Covenant which will be instituted during the Millennium is not in effect today.  Since the Old Covenant was between God and Israel, the New Covenant is also between God and Israel.    Matthew 5 is the blueprint for the Millennium.   Matthew 24 is prophecy concerning the Tribulation.
What the future holds :
Body of Christ will be taken up to meet the Lord in the clouds and will then attend the Judgement Seat of Christ.
Back on earth, God will once again be dealing with Israel and the Kingdom Gospel will once again be in effect.
Only a third of Israel will be saved, meaning two-thirds will perish.
After the tribulation comes the sheep-goats nations judgement - nations who went against Israel during the tribulation will be the goats and will perish, those who helped the little flock will go into the Millennium period (1000 years).
Jesus Christ will rule with a rod of iron during this period of time and institute the Law.
There will be no more war.
However towards the end of the Millennium, Satan will once again be released to cause havoc on earth and some people will turn to serve him.   Satan will finally be thrown into the bottomless pit and lost sinners will be judged at the Great White Throne Judgement, and will be thrown into the Lake of Fire where they will spend eternity, after this God will create a new earth and the New Jerusalem will come down from heaven and this is probably what the Apostle Paul refers to as the dispensation of the fulness of times where all in Christ will come together.
Ephesians 1:10 - That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:
Since it can be garnered from the Bible that God has two programmes, and thus two groups of people, i.e., a heavenly one (Body of Christ) and an earthly one (Bride of Christ).    The Body of Christ will inhabit heavenly places, while the Bride of Christ (Israel and her prostelytes) will inhabit earth under the Kingdom programme.  Eventually the two will come together in the dispensation of the fulness of times.
Hosea 6 has this to say :
6 Come, and let us return unto the Lord: for he hath torn, and he will heal us; he hath smitten, and he will bind us up. (THIS PROPHECY WAS FULFILLED AT THE CLOSE OF THE BOOK OF ACTS)


IN THE THIRD DAY he will raise us up, and we shall live in his sight. (THIS IS THE MILLENNIUM)

3 Then shall we know, if we follow on to know the Lord: his going forth is prepared as the morning; and he shall come unto us as the rain, as the latter and former rain unto the earth. (CHRIST WILL COME DOWN TO EARTH AND RULE AND JUSTICE WILL ONCE AGAIN PREVAIL)
Why did Jesus stop at this point and not continue? :
“The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound; To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD,…” – Isaiah 61:1-2

Then he stopped reading. In mid-sentence he stopped. This was not a dramatic pause or a preacher’s pause, Luke 4:20 says that was the end. 

“ And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him.” – Luke 4:20

(All caps in this email are for emphasis purposes only).